Single worst thread title ever? :: Thanks. Can we list fights where we think the scoring in the rematch may have been effected by the (in ring) events of the first fight? Ie where a guy's good performance in the first fight may have given him the benefit of close rounds in the return. Rematch scoring doesn't have to have been skewered enough to cause a wrong outcome per se, just to have effected it DLH-Mosley II Forrest-Mosley II Floyd-Castillo II Barrera-Morales II Barrera-Jones II Forrest-Mayorga II Others?
I think this and Barrera-Morales II are the absolute best examples. I'l add Taylor-Hopkins II to the mix.
I still can't get over Hopkins losing to Taylor, especially a second time. Nard seemed to have him basically figured out midway throughout the first fight, and Jermain didn't really fight much differently in the rematch.
I'm not completely sure what you mean by the question. But in line with the thread, I personally thought those two fights were scored too favourably for the man who won the first fight.
It's because I scored them both either much closer than the judges or for the other man! I can't answer the question any more fundamentally than that.....there's no layer beneath that, dammit. IM GIVING YOU EVERYTHING!!!!!!!!:crying:
OK. I was thinking you were saying the scorecards from fight one had some impact on the cards for fight two, which for those two bouts, I could not understand. I do think Mosley lost more competitively to Forrest than the cards showed, & that he outright lost to De La Hoya in a fight he received the decision.
Well then we're agreed. I think the fact Mosley had won very decisively in the first fight probably helped colour the judges perception of the close rounds in the 2nd. In line with the theme/theory of the thread. I'm totally confused about what we're arguing about here. I'm gonna go have a coffee.:giggle:
OK, let me try to re-phrase. You were talking about fights in which the scores from the first fight impacted a rematch (to me, that springs to mind fights like Lewis-Holyfield II, or Whitaker-Ramirez II, where one fighter was badly screwed in the first outing, & will, if need be, find assistance from the judges in a return fight). Since Forrest dominated Mosley in their first, & Mosley won a legit decision over De La Hoya in their first, & the scorecards fairly reflected that, I was wondering how you came up with the notion that the legitimate & fair cards from fight one (both fights) would in any real way make a difference to the cards of the second fight.
How is it self-fulfilling exactly, too? This thread is like a mirror funhouse. Just so much confusion ::
Aha right, I get you.:Thumbs: Nah, I just mean fights where the events of the first fight, predominantly in the ring (but on the scorecards too if you like), impacted the scoring of second fight. I tend to think judges are often influenced by the pattern of the first fight in the scoring of the second.
I got you now. Man, that was distracting though. At one point I typed out my explanation & it felt more confusing, not less :: Of course, the subsequent dialogue has completely sapped my mental capacity, so I will need time to recuperate & figure out some fights which match the original thread idea now. Nothing is jumping out at me.
Self fulfilling expectations on the score cards. The judges have expectations of the pattern of the fight based on the first fight and score close rounds/exchanges accordingly. Apologies, I thought the concept was clear but obviously it really, really wasn't. :scared2: I'll take more care next time.
It's actually a good thread (at least an original one). Just the title that... well, I have to admit, the title made such little sense that it prompted me to click on the thread just to find out WTF you were talking about. So, well done in that regard. Thread titling-tations for everyone!